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When Did Christ Ever Sacrifice To Baalim?

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Hi M______
Thank you for getting back to me. You know that I am not intending to offend you, but my point in quoting Hos 11:1 was to  ask the very question you pose:

“When did Christ sacrifice unto Baalim? I cannot find any scripture that says he burned incense to graven images.”

So why does Matthew tell us that this verse of scripture is a reference to Christ being called out of Egypt?:
That is a legitimate question. And the answer to that question is that even though Christ never did  sacrifice to Baalim and even though He never did burn incense to graven images, He is more than willing to take the responsibility for and identify with his creation which He created for the very purpose of eating of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil so that we could begin our journey toward becoming like God.

Gen 3:22  (a) And the LORD God said, Behold, the man is become as one of us, to know good and evil…

Did God tell Adam not to eat of the tree? Of course He did! But did God intend for Adam to eat of that tree of the knowledge of good and evil? Well, you figure it out. Here is what we are told for a fact:

Rev 13:8  And all that dwell upon the earth shall worship him, whose names are not written in the book of life of the Lamb slain from the foundation of the world.

And we are also told this:

2Ti 1:9  Who hath saved us, and called [ us] with an holy calling, not according to our works, but according to his own purpose and grace, which was given us in Christ Jesus before the world began,
Tit 1:2  In hope of eternal life, which God, that cannot lie, promised before the world began;

Apparently God knew exactly what would happen before He ever even started to create man. He knew because He so predestined it all:

Eph 1:5  Having predestinated us unto the adoption of children by Jesus Christ to himself, according to the good pleasure of his will,
Eph 1:11  In whom also we have obtained an inheritance, being predestinated according to the purpose of him who worketh all things after the counsel of his own will :

Now if it were Christ who predestined every man to sin as he does, then why would He not be willing to take on Himself our sins? We think that because Christ never sinned Himself that therefore it is blasphemous to tell anyone that Christ created man to sin. And  that therefore when we say that He “took on Him our sins” that it is blasphemous for us to say that when David says:

Psa 69:5  O God, thou knowest my foolishness; and my sins are not hid from thee.

… that Christ can die on the cross with all the sins of the world being placed upon Him and identify with Adam and Eve and with Israel coming up out of Egypt. Not because Christ sinned but because Christ  made us all as sinners who sin and who need a spotless Savior who is willing to take on Him our sins to the extent that Hos 11:1 can be used to refer to Christ:

Mat 2:15  And was there until the death of Herod: that it might be fulfilled which was spoken of the Lord by the prophet, saying, Out of Egypt have I called my son.

Hos 11:1  When Israel was a child [ an immature, wretched sinner, a lost sheep , a prodigal, and adulterous woman, a tax collector etc.], then I loved him, and called my son out of Egypt [ sin].
Hos 11:2  As they called them, so they went from them: they sacrificed unto Baalim, and burned incense to graven images.

And when you read this statement, it is really referring to Israel in a state of apostasy. So why quote this as referring to Christ, if we do not see how Christ identifies with the sin we are even though He, Himself never sinned. Christ was not made righteous for our sins – He was made sin. Christ  was righteous, so that He could be “made sin:”

2Co 5:21  For he hath made him [ to be] sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.

Why did Christ live a spotless life? So that He could do so again within each of us. Why was He made sin? So that we sinners might be made the righteousness of God in Him. That is why Christ is in every verse of God’s Word. It is all the revelation of what Christ is and what He is doing.
I hope this is of some help, and you can now see how such verses as Hos 11:1 are not saying Christ burned  incense to idols while He was here in this sinful flesh, but that through His creation Adam, who, as little as our Babylonian minds like to admit it, Christ created to burn incense to idols. And that since Christ created Adam for that reason, it is Christ who inspired these words which some would call blasphemous:

Rom 5:14  Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam’s transgression, who is the figure of him that was to come.

“Adam is a figure of Christ?” Adam who had us all within him is a figure of Christ but Tamar, who Judah lied to and defrauded is not? Another Tamar, David’s daughter who was used and abused by her own brother is not also a figure of Christ?. Are they not “in Adam?” How then can Adam be a figure of Christ and any of His offspring not also be figures of Christ? Are there any who are not in Adam? If we are in Adam we are a figure of him who was to come. It is ‘in Adam’ that we are “born of the water” as Christ was born of water. It is in Adam that we are flesh as Christ was flesh. And it is ‘in Adam’ that we “fall into the ground and die… with Christ in baptism” so that we can be raised in newness of life in Christ… who was made sin for us who knew no sin.” And all of that is to some “blasphemous.” Yet every word is scriptural.
I hope this is of some help to you. As I have said before, I cannot and do not want to try to make anyone see what I see in God’s Word.  All revelation is by  supernatural means or it is not revelation at all. If God had not shown Peter who Christ was, Peter would never have known. That is the way of all revelation. If God does not show you, then you don’t know. But He enlightens our understanding day by day.
I hope to hear from you again.
Mike>

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