Are Prayer Tongues Scriptural?

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Hi F____,

I understand this struggle because I have endured it myself. I hope this is of some help in your understanding of what happened on the day of Pentecost. What happened then was, according to Peter, the very same thing that happened at Cornelius’s house, and there is no reason to think that it was not the same in every instance.
As I point out in this e- mail, there simply is not one scripture as a Biblical basis for speaking in unknown tongues. The fact that Paul says “my understanding is unfruitful” and “in the spirit I speak mysteries” in no way proves that Paul or anyone with the gift of tongues had an ‘unknown angels tongue’. What it does prove is that the people who spoke in tongues on the day of Pentecost did not understand the language they were speaking. But that does not make it any less a language. We are told that those speaking were speaking “in our own language”.

Act 2:8  And how hear we every man in our own tongue, wherein we were born?

As you can see in the verses you have sent me, the number for the word ‘tongues’ is G1100, and the word is glossa, and it means a language. You cannot interpret a nonexistent language. There is no need for a nonexistent language because there would be no way of “interpreting” that language. The tongues of scripture are intended to be “spoken clearly… for a sign to the unbelievers,” and then they were to be “interpreted” for the benefit of the believers also. We are even told that it is incumbent upon the person with the gift of tongues to seek out an interpreter before he speaks in that language as a sign to an unbeliever, and if there is no interpreter available, then the person with the gift is told not to speak in that language at all.

1Co 14:27  If any man speak in an [ unknown] tongue, [ let it be] by two, or at the most [ by] three, and [ that] by course; and let one interpret.
1Co 14:28  But if there be no interpreter, let him keep silence in the church; and let him speak to himself, and to God.

We are not told to speak first and then find out if there is an interpreter, instead we are told “If there be no interpreter let him keep silence” Do any of those who practice this doctrine follow these instructions?
Yes, the holy ghost did cause people to speak in other tongues, and I certainly would never “forbid anyone to speak in tongues”; known or unknown. But I always demonstrate with the scriptures, that there is no scriptural basis for speaking in something that is not a tongue, and is instead a counterfeit of what happened on the day of Pentecost in Act 2. Yes, the holy ghost was given after believing and being baptized in many instances, like at Samaria in Act 8 and Ephesus in Act 19. But that just demonstrates that newborn babes are still carnal. It does not demonstrate that anyone spoke in unintelligible syllables, and there is no reason to believe that the language of prayer is any different than the languages of Pentecost.
I hope this helps you to understand this subject. If not please let me know what is still unclear.

Your brother in Christ,

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